All candidates are mandatorily required to read this Information Bulletin in its entirety. The candidates are required to ensure that they fulfill all conditions as contained in this Information Bulletin. Due to the large number of candidates that are expected to apply for appearing in this examination, electronic systems will be
used to analyse the information submitted by candidates. Accordingly, the admission to various stages of the examination will be purely provisional and would be subject to physical verification of documents. Mere issue of e-Admit Card to the candidate will not imply that a candidature has been finally cleared by the
Competent Authority. The process of verification of documents and various conditions prescribed in this document will be conducted after the declaration of final list of qualified candidates.
HOW TO APPLY
Candidates are required to apply online by using the website www.qcin.org. No
other mode of application will be accepted.
There will be an examination fee of ₹1000/- (Rupees One Thousand only) for candidates belonging to General category and OBC category. For candidates belonging to SC /ST category, PWD/ Differently abled (PH) category and women applicants (from all categories) and any other person, the examination fee shall be ₹500/- (Rupees Five Hundred only).
RELAXATION / CONCESSION
The crucial date for claim of any kind of benefit, that is, reservation, fee concession, age-relaxation, etc., shall be last date of submission of application. The Competent Authority reserves the right to debar any candidate for any
malpractice, including for a fraudulent claim of any kind of benefit / relaxation / concession.
CGPDTM intends to recruit Examiners of Patents and Designs, General Central Service, Group ‘A’ Gazetted (Non-Ministerial) in Level 10 in Pay Matrix (₹ 56,100 – 1,77,500) plus applicable allowances, as admissible, in the Government of India. The vacancies are tentative, which may be decreased or increased depending upon
the actual requirement at the time of final appointment.
IMPORTANT DATES AT A GLANCE (TENTATIVE)
|1.||Online application process starts||14th July 2023|
|2.||Online application process concludes||4th August 2023|
|3.||Issuance of e-Admit Card for Preliminary Examination||14th August 2023|
|4.||Preliminary Examination||3rd September 2023|
|5.||Declaration of result of Preliminary Examination||13th September 2023|
|6.||Issuance of e-Admit Card for Mains Examination||18th September 2023|
|7.||Mains Examination||1st October 2023|
|8.||Declaration of result of Mains Examination||16th October 2023|
|9.||Issuance of e-Admit Card for Interview||22nd October 2023|
|10.||Interview||11th and 12th November 2023|
|11.||Declaration of final list of qualified candidates||17th November 2023|
OFFICE OF CGPDTM
The Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks (CGPDTM) administers the Industrial Property laws related to Patents (Patents Act 1970), Designs (Designs Act, 2000), Trade Marks (Trade Marks Act, 1999) and Geographical Indications (Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act 1999) in the country. The CGPDTM is also the Registrar of Copyrights and Registrar of Semiconductor Integrated Circuits Layout-Design. The headquarter of the Office of Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trade Marks is located at Mumbai. The Rajiv Gandhi National Institute of Intellectual Property Management (RGNIIPM) and Patent Information System (PIS), Nagpur also function under the superintendence and administrative control of the CGPDTM.
The Patent Office is located at four places, that is, Chennai, Delhi, Kolkata and Mumbai. The Trade Marks Registry is located at five places, that is, Chennai, Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai and Ahmedabad. The Designs Wing is located at Kolkata and the Geographical Indications Registry is located at Chennai. The Copyright Office and the Semiconductor Integrated Circuits Layout-Design Registry are located at Delhi. The RGNIIPM and PIS are located at Nagpur.
EXAMINER OF PATENTS & DESIGNS
The Examiner of Patents & Designs is the backbone of the Patent Office who examines the patent application in accordance with section 12 of the Patents Act, 1970, which states as follows:
12. Examination of application.—(1) When a request for examination has been made in respect of an application for a patent in the prescribed manner under sub-section (1) or sub-section (3) of section 11B, the application and specification and other documents related thereto shall be referred at the
earliest by the Controller to an examiner for making a report to him in respect of the following matters, namely:—
- (a) whether the application and the specification and other documents relating thereto are in accordance with the requirements of this Act and of any rules made thereunder;
- (b) whether there is any lawful ground of objection to the grant of the patent under this Act in pursuance of the application;
- (c) the result of investigations made under section 13; and
- (d) any other matter which may be prescribed.
(2) The examiner to whom the application and the specification and other documents relating thereto are referred under sub-section (1) shall ordinarily make the report to the Controller within such period as may be prescribed.
It may be noted that the Examiner of Patents & Designs also acts as Examiner under the Designs Act, 2000.
1. DISTRIBUTION (DISCIPLINE AND CATEGORY-WISE) Total vacancies and the discipline-wise and category-wise distribution is as follows:
|5||Polymer Science and Technology||1||NIL||3||1||4||9|
|7||Electronics & Communication||15||6||30||11||46||108|
|9||Computer Science & Information Technology||9||3||17||6||28||63|
2. DISTRIBUTION (PwBD)
Among the above 553 tentative posts, the details of vacancies reserved for Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) category are as follows:
|S. No.||Category of Reservation/ Benchmark Disabilities||No. of Posts||Total|
|1||Locomotor disability (OA, OL, OAL, BL) including cerebral palsy, leprosy cured, dwarfism, acid attach victims and muscular dystrophy.||1||6||7|
|2||Blindness and Low vision (VH)||5||5||10|
|3||Hard of Hearing (HH)||3||6||9|
|4||Multiple disabilities from amongst persons under S. No. 1 to 3, except deaf-blindness.||2||5||7|
Note 1: The number of vacancies given above is tentative and are subject to variation, dependent on the approval of Competent Authority and policy of the Government of India.
Note 2: The Competent Authority will consider the suitability of posts for various benchmark disabilities under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016 in accordance with the latest O.M.s and Notifications issued by Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (Divyangjan), Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of India.
A candidate must be either:-
- a) a citizen of India, or
- b) a subject of Nepal, or
- c) a subject of Bhutan, or
- d) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India, or
- e) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.
Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c), (d) and (e) shall be a person in whose favour a Certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India on or before the last date of submission of application. Crucial date for claim of SC/ ST/ OBC/ EWS/ PwBD status or any other benefit viz. fee concession, reservation, age-relaxation, etc., where not specified otherwise, will be the last date of filling the online application.
A candidate in whose case a Certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the examination but the offer of appointment may be given only after the verification of necessary eligibility Certificate issued to him/her by the Government of India.
2. MINIMUM ESSENTIAL EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION
|S. No.||Discipline||Essential qualification: following Degree from a recognized university|
|1||Bio-Technology||Master Degree in Bio-Technology/ Micro Biology/ Molecular-Biology/ Bio Physics or equivalent|
|2||Bio-Chemistry||Master Degree in Biochemistry or equivalent|
|3||Food Technology||Bachelor Degree in Food Technology/ Engineering or equivalent|
|4||Chemistry||Master Degree in Chemistry or Bachelor Degree in Chemical Technology/ Engineering or equivalent|
|5||Polymer Science and Technology||Master Degree in Polymer Science or Bachelor Degree in Polymer Technology / Engineering or equivalent|
|6||Bio-Medical Engineering||Bachelor Degree in Bio-Medical Technology/ Engineering or equivalent|
|7||Electronics & Communication Engineering||Bachelor Degree in Electronics Technology/ Engineering or Electronics & Telecommunication Technology/ Engineering or equivalent|
|8||Electrical Engineering||Bachelor Degree in Electrical Technology/ Engineering or equivalent|
|9||Computer Science & Information Technology||Master Degree in Computer Science/ Information Technology or Bachelor Degree in Engineering/Technology in Computer Science/ Information Technology or equivalent|
|10||Physics||Master Degree in Physics or equivalent|
|11||Civil Engineering||Bachelor Degree in Civil Technology/ Engineering or equivalent|
|12||Mechanical Engineering||Bachelor Degree in Mechanical Engineering /Technology or equivalent|
|13||Metallurgical Engineering||Bachelor Degree in Engineering/Technology in Metallurgy or equivalent|
|14||Textile Engineering||Bachelor Degree in Textile Engineering /Technology or equivalent|
Note: The candidates must Note : Candidates must hold a degree in any of the above disciplines of any of the Universities incorporated by an Act of the Central or State Legislature in India or other educational institutions established by an Act of the Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University under section 3 of the UGC Act, 1956.
SCHEME OF EXAMINATION
The Examination will consist of three phases as follows:
- i. Preliminary Examination for screening of candidates for the main examination;
- ii. Mains Examination for shortlisting of candidates for Interview; and
- iii. Interview.
2. DETAILS OF PHASES
The details of different phases are as follows:
(i) Preliminary Examination
- a. This examination is meant to serve as a screening test and the marks secured in this examination will not be considered towards the declaration of final list of qualified candidates.
- b. This examination will be conducted in ONLINE mode only. c. It will consist of one paper of objective type multiple choice questions and will comprise of 150 marks .
- d. This examination will be of a duration of 2 hours.
- e. A maximum of 150 questions, each question carrying one mark, will be present in this paper, which will consist of multiple-choice questions to test General English (15 marks), Verbal and Non Verbal Reasoning (30 marks),
- Quantitative Aptitude (30 marks), General Knowledge and Current Affairs (30 marks), General Science (30 marks) and IP legislation in India, WIPO and related treaties (15 marks)
- f. The number of candidates to be admitted to the mains examination, on the basis of result of the preliminary examination, may be about twenty times of the total approximate number of vacancies to be filled through this recruitment process. The minimum qualifying marks in preliminary exam for UR :30%; OBC/EWS :25% and others :20%
i) For example: A candidate has to score above mentioned percentage of marks category-wise of the total marks in preliminary examination for qualifying in the exam. Further, cut off of the preliminary exam will be prepared as per the vacancy and no. of candidates to be qualified for mains exam. This criterion is tentative and competent authority has the right to do modification as per requirements.
ii) For example: Let’s consider the total vacancy are 100, then no. of candidates qualifying for mains exam shall be approximately 20 times of the vacancy i.e. 2000 candidates and accordingly will be the cut off of preliminary exam.
(ii) Mains Examination
a. The mains examination will be conducted in offline mode only and will consist of a written examination, which will consist of 2 papers i.e. Paper –I (OMR Based) and Paper –II (Descriptive answer). Paper I will be of 100 marks and Paper –II will be of 300 marks.
b. Paper-I will be of 2 hours duration and will comprise of a maximum of 100 objective type multiple-choice questions, each question carrying one mark, to test the General Knowledge and Current Affairs (20 Marks), General Aptitude (20 Marks), Elementary mathematics (20 Marks), English language proficiency (20 Marks) and knowledge related to intellectual property rights (IPRs) (20 Marks).
c. Paper-II will test the knowledge of the candidate in the technical / scientific discipline of the vacancy applied for. Paper-II will be of 3 hours duration and will comprise of 300 marks having descriptive questions. Discipline wise syllabus is given in Annexure.
d. The cumulative marks obtained in Paper-I and Paper-II will be assigned 80% weightage in the final list of qualified candidates.
e. As a general rule, candidates must write all the papers in their own handwriting and in no circumstances will they be allowed to take the help of a scribe. However, persons with disabilities may be eligible for the facility of a scribe in accordance with the relevant rules, O.M.s, guidelines, etc. The onus of justifying the existence of such circumstances and the resultant right to use a scribe shall be upon the candidate.
f. If a candidate’s handwriting is not easily legible, the relevant answer shall be treated as incorrect.
g. The number of candidates to be eligible for interview may be about five times the total approximate number of vacancies to be filled through this recruitment process.
The interview will be of 100 marks and will test the candidate on the topics covered in the preliminary and mains examination. The marks obtained in interview will be given 20% weightage in the final list of qualified candidates.
3. MEDIUM OF EXAMINATION
The medium of examination for preliminary and mains examination as well as interview shall be English only.
A common seniority list in various disciplines in respect of the final list of qualified candidates will be prepared by normalization procedure, which will be as follows:
- i. The highest marks secured by a candidate in each discipline will be considered equal to 100%. The percentages (x) of other candidates in the same discipline will be calculated as per the following formula:
- (x) = 100 multiplied by marks secured by a candidate in a subject and divided by highest marks in that subject.
- ii. For candidates that have secured equal normalized score, relative seniority be determined by date of birth, whereby a candidate with earlier date of birth (elder candidate) will be placed higher in the list compared to another with a later date of birth (younger candidate).
- iii. In case of candidates with same normalized scores and same date of birth, the candidates may be placed in the seniority list as per alphabetical order (by first name).
Important Instructions to Candidates
- a) No request for change in examination centre shall be entertained. b) Rights for the rules for the cut off of the all stages for all the posts in the examination are reserved by CGPDTM
- c) If a candidate fails in such tests, his candidature will not be subsequently considered for any other post/ department. Candidates are therefore required to carefully go through these requirements.
- d) The final allotment of posts is being made on the basis of merit-cum-preferences and once a post is allotted, no change of posts will be made by the QCI. e) Success in the examination confers no right of appointment unless QCI is satisfied after such enquiry as may be considered necessary that the candidate is suitable in all respects for appointment to the service/ post.
- f) The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all the eligibility conditions for admission to the examination. Their admission at all stages of the examination will be purely provisional, subject to their satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. If, on verification, at any time before or after the written examination, it is found that they do not fulfill any of the eligibility conditions, their candidature for the examination will be cancelled.
- g) If candidates are found to indulge at any stage in any of the malpractices and fraudery their candidature for this examination will be cancelled and legal actions shall be taken by QCI. QCI may also report the matter to Police/ Investigating Agencies, as deemed fit.
- h) Before applying, candidates must to go through the instructions given in the notice of examination very carefully.
- i) Candidates seeking reservation benefits available for SC/ ST/ OBC/ EWS/ PwBD/ ESM must ensure that they are entitled to such reservation as per eligibility prescribed in the Notice.
- j) The candidates must write their name, date of birth, father’s name and mother’s name strictly as given in the matriculation certificate otherwise their candidature may be cancelled at the time of Document Verification or as and when it comes into the notice of the commission.
- k) Candidates are advised to fill their correct and active e-mail addresses and mobile number in the online application as correspondence may be made through e-mail/ SMS.
- l) In case of fake/ fabricated application/ registration by misusing any dignitaries name/ photo, such candidate/ cyber cafe will be held responsible for the same and liable for suitable legal action under cyber/ IT Act.
- m) All decisions related to recruitment shall be made and enforced by QCI and will be applicable for all candidates.
SYLLABUS FOR Food Technology
Food Chemistry and Nutrition: Carbohydrates: Structure and functional properties of monooligo- polysaccharides including starch, cellulose, pectic substances and dietary fibre; Proteins: Classification and structure of proteins in food; Lipids: Classification and structure of lipids, Rancidity of fats, Polymerization and polymorphism; Pigments: Carotenoids, chlorophylls, anthocyanins, tannins and myoglobin; Food flavours: Terpenes, esters, ketones and quinones; Enzymes: Specificity, Kinetics and inhibition, Coenzymes, Enzymatic and non-enzymatic browning; Nutrition: Balanced diet, Essential amino acids and fatty acids, PER, Water soluble and fat soluble vitamins, Role of minerals in nutrition, Antinutrients, Nutrition deficiency diseases.
Food Microbiology: Characteristics of microorganisms: Morphology, structure and detection of bacteria, yeast and mold in food, Spores and vegetative cells; Microbial growth in food: Intrinsic and extrinsic factors, Growth and death kinetics, serial dilution method for quantification; Food spoilage: Contributing factors, Spoilage bacteria, Microbial spoilage of milk and milk products, meat and meat products; Foodborne disease: Toxins produced by Staphylococcus, Clostridium and Aspergillus; Bacterial pathogens: Salmonella, Bacillus, Listeria, Escherichia coli, Shigella, Campylobacter; Fermented food: Buttermilk, yoghurt, cheese, sausage, alcoholic beverage, vinegar, sauerkraut and soya sauce.
Food Products Technology: Processing principles: Canning, chilling, freezing, dehydration, control of water activity, CA and MA storage, fermentation, hurdle technology, addition of preservatives and food additives, Food packaging, cleaning in place and food laws.; Grain products processing: Milling of rice, wheat, and maize, parboiling of paddy, production of bread, biscuits, extruded products and breakfast cereals, Solvent extraction, refining and hydrogenation of oil; Fruits, vegetables and plantation products processing: Extraction, clarification concentration and packaging of fruit juice, Production of jam, jelly, marmalade, squash, candies, and pickles, pectin from fruit waste, tea, coffee, chocolate and essential oils from spices; Milk and milk products processing: Pasteurized and sterilized milk, cream, butter, ghee, ice-cream, cheese and milk powder; Animal products processing: Drying and canning of fish, post mortem changes, tenderization and freezing of meat, egg powder.
Food Engineering: Mass and energy balance; Momentum transfer: Flow rate and pressure drop relationships for Newtonian fluids flowing through pipe, Characteristics of non- Newtonian fluids – generalized viscosity coefficient and Reynolds number, Flow of compressible fluid, Flow measurement, Pumps and compressors; Heat transfer: Heat transfer by conduction, convection, radiation, boiling and condensation, Unsteady state heat transfer in simple geometry, NTU effectiveness relationship of co-current and counter current double pipe heat exchanger; Mass transfer: Molecular diffusion and Fick’s Law, Steady state mass transfer, Convective mass transfer, Permeability of films and laminates; Mechanical operations: Energy requirement and rate of operations involved in size reduction of solids, high pressure homogenization, filtration, centrifugation, settling, sieving, flow through porous bed, agitation of liquid, solid-solid mixing, and single screw extrusion; Thermal operations: Energy requirement and rate of operations involved in process time evaluation in batch and continuous sterilization, evaporation of liquid foods, hot air drying of solids, spray and freeze drying, freezing and crystallization; Mass transfer operations: Properties of air water vapor mixture; Humidification and dehumidification operations.
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